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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

15.06.2025 14:37

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Why are conservatives banning liberal books? Why are conservatives so offended by the teaching of racism and other topics?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why are liberals so bad at grasping alternative facts? For example, if something doesn’t happen the exact same way Trump described it, liberals dismiss it as false; while conservatives are able to fully understand the underlying principle.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.